Drinking Deeply

Sunday, April 16, 2006 at 1:53 PM

At the Tomb

Here's the question of the month. Answer, with Scriptual support:

Why did Jesus Christ rise from the dead?

Here's one to get you started:

Jesus Christ rose from the dead to demonstrate the truth and reality of His death on the cross being a sacrifice for our sins.

1 Cor. 15) 17And if Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile and you are still in your sins. 18Then those also who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished.

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Blogger Modern Day Magi said...

Why did Jesus Christ rise from the dead?

Because it was prophesied that the Messiah would die and then be resurected.
"David said about him(Jesus):
" 'I saw the Lord always before me. Because he is at my right hand, I will not be shaken.
Therefore my heart is glad and my tongue rejoices; my body also will live in hope, because you will not abandon me to the grave, nor will you let your Holy One see decay. You have made known to me the paths of life; you will fill me with joy in your presence.'
"Brothers, I can tell you confidently that the patriarch David died and was buried, and his tomb is here to this day. But he was a prophet and knew that God had promised him on oath that he would place one of his descendants on his throne."
Acts 2:25-30 quoting Psalm 16:8-11
and
"For he was cut off from the land of the living...He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death...Yet it was the LORD's will to crush him and cause him to suffer, and though the LORD makes his life a guilt offering...After the suffering of his soul, he will see the light of life"
Isaiah 53:8-11

And so that our testimony of Him as the Son of God is true.
"And if Christ has not been raised, our preaching is useless and so is your faith."
1 Cor 15:14

Or perhaps simply because He is God and God said "I the LORD do not change." Malachi 3:6 Since Jesus was alive, and does not change, He should then remain alive for evermore. He could not remain dead or He would not be God.

MDM  

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Blogger Eric said...

I don't think that 1 Cor. passage quite supports that, Mickey. It seems to me that what that passage is talking about in context is the reality of eternal life. Christ's resurrection is a counterexample to those who say that the resurrection (and here we don't mean simply "the state of being alive after one has been dead" - Christ's resurrection is different from Lazarus') is an impossibility (1 Cor. 15:12-13). I don't think 1 Cor. 15 is about the reality of Christ's sacrifice; I think it's about the fact that our life in Christ will continue after death (1 Cor. 15:19).  

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Anonymous JCslady said...

His resurrection is proof that He is the Son of God. (Rom. 1:4)

Christ's resurrection is proof that God, the Father, is satisfied with the price paid to redeem us. Were it not enough, He would not have been raised from the dead. (1 Pet. 1:18,19)

It is also proof of the sinlessness of Christ because the wages of sin is death and death could not hold Him. (Rom. 6:23; Acts 2:24)

Proof that His own words were true when He prophesied His own resurrection. (John 2:19; 10:17,18)  

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Blogger mxu said...

Eric -

I don't quite agree. 1 Cor. 15:3 makes it very clear that Paul is talking about the significance of Christ's death.

3For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received: that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the Scriptures,

v. 17 says "if Christ has not been raised, your faith is futile and you are still in your sins." making it very clear that the resurrection is the evidence of the reality of the death. Without the resurrection, the death is not a death for our sins.

While I agree with you that much of 1 Cor. 15 is about the reality of the resurrection, I think the crux of the passage is to prove the reality of the resurrection as a means of reestablishing the reality of the atonement.  

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Blogger Eric said...

I agree that that's in the passage, and it strikes me that what the "crux" of the passage is is rather beside the point given the question you asked. Another thing that's in the passage, I think, is that Christ's resurrection points us to the reality of our resurrection. Christ is a counterexample to those who say with the Sadducees that there will be no resurrection. Inasmuch as that is essentially saying "the life we live in Christ will continue and be made perfect after our present physical bodies are dead," I agree with you. But Paul himself seems to acknowledge that justification in this age is conceptually separate from justification in the age to come. Someone (a newly converted Sadducee, perhaps) might say, "Well look here, if we're saved in Christ now and after death we're gone, so what? We still got to live our life in Christ!" But Paul evidently disagrees: "If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men the most pitiable."  

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Blogger mxu said...

Eric -

I think we may be talking past one another, as I'm not too sure what you were challenging the verse reference for. It seems to support (as you agree) that the resurrection is a demonstration of the reality of Christ's death on our behalf, justifying us before God.

But then you say:

But Paul himself seems to acknowledge that justification in this age is conceptually separate from justification in the age to come. Someone (a newly converted Sadducee, perhaps) might say, "Well look here, if we're saved in Christ now and after death we're gone, so what? We still got to live our life in Christ!" But Paul evidently disagrees: "If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men the most pitiable."


I'm not quite sure I understand what you are referring to in the sense of "two types of justification."

The verse preceeding the one you quote seems to lend enough context:

18Then those also who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished.

If Christ had not been raised from the dead, then there will be no resurrection from the dead, and the hope we place in Christ is worthless, as the justification is not there at all. I think you agree with me here... right? If not, could you clarify?  

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